设f'(0)=1,f(0)=0,则lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)]/tan(x^2)=?答案是原式=lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)-f(x)]/1-cosx ×设f'(0)=1,f(0)=0,则lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)]/tan(x^2)=?答案是原式=lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)-f(x)]/1-cosx × (1-cos x)/tan(x^2)=f'(0) ×lim(x→

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设f''(0)=1,f(0)=0,则lim(x→0)[f(1-cosx)]/tan(x^2)=?答案是原式=lim(x→0)[f(1-cosx)-f(x)]/1-cosx×设f''(0)=1,f(0)=0

设f'(0)=1,f(0)=0,则lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)]/tan(x^2)=?答案是原式=lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)-f(x)]/1-cosx ×设f'(0)=1,f(0)=0,则lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)]/tan(x^2)=?答案是原式=lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)-f(x)]/1-cosx × (1-cos x)/tan(x^2)=f'(0) ×lim(x→
设f'(0)=1,f(0)=0,则lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)]/tan(x^2)=?答案是原式=lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)-f(x)]/1-cosx ×
设f'(0)=1,f(0)=0,则lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)]/tan(x^2)=?答案是原式=lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)-f(x)]/1-cosx × (1-cos x)/tan(x^2)=f'(0) ×lim(x→0)[(1-cos x)/(x^2)]=1/2,但是我开始做时,我想x→0时,cosx→1,则f(1-cos x)→0,同时tan x^2→0,这是0/0型求极限,运用洛必达法则,结果和答案不一样,我想问的是为什么不能这样求?我错在哪?请老师指教,

设f'(0)=1,f(0)=0,则lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)]/tan(x^2)=?答案是原式=lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)-f(x)]/1-cosx ×设f'(0)=1,f(0)=0,则lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)]/tan(x^2)=?答案是原式=lim(x→0)[f(1-cos x)-f(x)]/1-cosx × (1-cos x)/tan(x^2)=f'(0) ×lim(x→
想法没错,但直接对tan(x^2)求导肯定比较麻繁.你肯定是在求导的过程中出了错误.不如先用等价无穷小将tan(x^2)转变为x^2再用洛必达法则就比较准确了.